Posted: 9/20/03 by the shovel
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There is no doubt that the writings of Matthew, Mark and Luke have been used to enforce law and legalism all across the world ... but the real question is, did the authors originate the meanings we have come to assume, or did a perversion of grace along the way embed such a view? What I'm asking is this: is it possible we have only learned to force these ancient writings into legal understandings through historical misperceptions?
Do we not realize that most of what Jesus encountered in Israel's religious mindset has repeated itself over and over again all through history? The simple truth of the matter is that when Jesus was approached by the agreed upon religious beliefs and interpretations of the scriptures they found him to be guilty of all kinds of heresies! Let's not be so naive in assuming our religious culture has escaped such a condition.
the shovel
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